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re: Can we talk about the 1H fumble situation in LSU-Bama?
Posted on 11/8/22 at 11:32 am to TFS4E
Posted on 11/8/22 at 11:32 am to TFS4E
I agree, it's a weird rule, and it seems to come down to a special case of changing and maintaining possession.
I think in this case if LSU had actually possessed the ball on the fumble, it would've then been LSU's ball, down at that spot.
Since possession did not change, it was the same result but remained Alabama's ball.
quote:
A player with one foot out of bounds behind a goal line touches a loose ball in the field of play.
RULING: Ball is out of bounds and dead at its most forward point in the field of play. If this loose ball was an untouched free kick, it is a free kick out of bounds and a foul.
I think in this case if LSU had actually possessed the ball on the fumble, it would've then been LSU's ball, down at that spot.
Since possession did not change, it was the same result but remained Alabama's ball.
3
Posted on 11/8/22 at 11:42 am to paperwasp
Yeah, and that’s where biases come in. As an LSU fan, I say Brooks possessed the ball just prior to Latu(?) knocking it out of his hand. But I can certainly point to other instances where someone grabs the ball rolls over and it pops out again not being called “possession”. So, we will probably never agree on that. 
I’ve seen a lot of “firm possession” or “firm grasp” (can’t remember the exact wording) discussion. A lot of people point to Latu(?) knocking it out as evidence of Brooks not having firm grasp. My counter to that is if I stand in front of you (or kneel) with the ball in both hands outstretched in front of me then let you swing to knock it out of my hands, did I not possess the ball prior to that action because I dropped it?
Maybe that’s a flimsy reasoning? Again, we both have biases here so it’s hard to come to an agreement.
I’ve seen a lot of “firm possession” or “firm grasp” (can’t remember the exact wording) discussion. A lot of people point to Latu(?) knocking it out as evidence of Brooks not having firm grasp. My counter to that is if I stand in front of you (or kneel) with the ball in both hands outstretched in front of me then let you swing to knock it out of my hands, did I not possess the ball prior to that action because I dropped it?
Maybe that’s a flimsy reasoning? Again, we both have biases here so it’s hard to come to an agreement.
Posted on 11/9/22 at 10:39 am to paperwasp
quote:
Since possession did not change,
If Mond had possession and his knee was down in 2018, Brooks had possession with his knee down in 2022.
It’s not the rule I’m necessarily frustrated with, it’s the inconsistent application.
Posted on 11/9/22 at 6:23 pm to paperwasp
Lsu guy clearly had possession even Herbstreit and Fowler said so. Nice try.
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