re: Lawfare: how is this defined, and how can it be (legally) stopped?

Using a law that was created after the Enron fiasco to go after protesters seems like lawfare, especially when you see part F of the statute where the proceeding doesn't even need to be taking place for it to kick in.

Why is it ONLY the protesters at Jan 6 fiasco who have been charged w that crime and not any other protesters ever?